NC A& T University Mock 0091 Exam

This test was made out by the North Carolina A & T State University Department of Health, Physical Education, Recreation, and Dance faculty.  I want to thank them for allowing this example test to be posted here.

Suggestions for Use

I think it would be a mistake to simply browse through the test questions.  I think the best use of the example test is to use it as intended, as a rehearsal for the Praxis PE: Content Knowledge test.

To use the test as a rehearsal, print out the test and the answers as well.  Set a timer for 2 hours.  Sit down and take the test using the timer to pace yourself.  Once you have finished the test, check your answers using the key you printed out. Then go back and review the questions you missed with an eye to spotting subjects that you should review or brush up on.

North Carolina A & T University
PE: Content Knowledge (0091) Mock Exam

1. All of the following are characteristics of a correct mature form for catching a medium sized red rubber ball EXCEPT

(A) the performer exhibits the avoidance reaction
(B) the arms give in upon contact with the ball to absorb its force
(C) the hands are cupped together with either the thumbs or the little fingers in opposition
(D) the arms make adjustments to variations in the flight of the ball

2. All of the following are characteristics of an immature form for running EXCEPT

(A) the legs are stiff and the stride is uneven
(B) the swinging foot tends to rotate outward from the hip
(C) the recovery knee is raised high and swung forward quickly
(D) the arms swing swiftly with varying degrees of flexion at the elbow

3. Which of the following arm-trunk actions illustrates a correct mature form for kicking?

(A) upon contact with the ball, the arm on the kicking side tends to swing from a forward to a backward position
(B) upon contact with the ball, the arm tends to move from a backward or sideward position to a forward one
(C) upon contact with the ball, the arms are held down at the sides of the body (D) no change is observed in the arm-trunk position.

4. The correct mature form for standing long jump has all the following elements EXCEPT

(A) the arms are held high throughout the jumping action
(B) the preparatory crouch is deep and consistent
(C) the extension at takeoff is limited
(D) the body weight at landing is forward

5. In which of the following locomotor skills does one foot generate the propelling force and the landing is accomplished on the same leg?

(A) Jumping
(B) Hopping
(C) Skipping
(D) Leaping

6. Ms. Brown’s lesson plan focuses upon teaching the limitations and capabilities of the body parts through the game “Simon Says. Which of the following concepts is taught in Ms. Brown’s lesson plan?

(A) Spatial awareness
(B) Body awareness
(C) Directional awareness
(D) Temporal awareness

7. Mr. Green observed that half of the five-year old children in his pre-school class showed an immature form of jumping, while the other half were quite mature in their jumping abilities. Which of the following statements explain the difference in ability of the five-year old children?

(A) Development is cephalocaudal in nature
(B) The rate of maturation is highly individualized
(C) Development follows a proximo-distal process
(D) Movement develops from mass to specific

8. Batting a pitched ball or attempting to intercept a soccer pass both require which of the following perceptual-motor components?

(A) body awareness
(B) spatial awareness
(C) temporal awareness
(D) directionality

9. Young children who give direction with the self as the point of reference are exhibiting which of the following spatial-related movement concepts?

(A) egocentric localization
(B) objective localization
(C) general localization
(D) extensions

10. A child refuses to participate in the physical education activities. She prefers to sit and watch the other children. What should you do to motivate the child to start participating in class?

(A) use reinforcement
(B) use punishment
(C) talk to parents
(D) scold the child

11. A child’s state of readiness to learn arid perform is influenced by which of the following conditions?

(A) prior experience
(B) previous successes in the same or similar activities
(C) attitudes and feelings toward and in the situation
(D) all of the above

12. When used properly, the main objective of locomotor movements is to:

(A) fill in spaces in dance compositions
(B) move through space from one area to another
(C) move around a stationary support
(D) all of the above

13. Given general knowledge of locomotor movements, which movement does the following demonstrate? Starting with feet side by side, cross right foot over left foot (ct. 1), step to left on left foot (ct 2), cross right foot behind left foot (ct 3), step to left on left foot (ct 4):

(A) gallop
(B) waltz
(C) grapevine
(D) slide

14. Basic body alignment in movement is important in terms of execution of movement and overall comfort and ability. The proper alignment should be viewed as:

(A) head, chest, and pelvic area in straight alignment
(B) weight placement should be mainly on the ball or the front of the foot as this part of the foot is designed to carry the majority of the body’s weight
(C) keeping the center of the knee in line with the middle toe is essential for support in a proper knee bend
(D) A and C only

15. In respect to directions of body movements, outward movements are any which go away from your body, and relatively, inward movements are those which come toward your body. Which of the following would not be classified as either.

(A) kick
(B) pulling in outstretched arms
(C) fall
(D) leap with fully extended legs

16. When throwing a football the stance should be with:

(A) the feet and stomach facing the target.
(B) the body sideways to the target with the throwing arm to the rear.
(C) the body sideways to the target with the throwing arm to the front.
(D) the feet in any position that works for a completion.

17. Which of the following is not a common error made by distance runners.

(A) breathing too fast and high in the chest.
(B) tensing of face, jaw, neck, shoulders, arms or hands,
(C) planting of the foot in a heel first rotating to the toe motion.
(D) over striding.

18. Which of the following is not a lifetime recreational activity?

(A) camping
(B) rugby
(C) hiking
(D) orienteering

19. Which of the following lifetime activities can help to develop neuromuscular coordination ion?

(A) golf and tennis
(B) camping and hiking
(C) football and rugby
(D) weight-training and powerlifling

20. To determine an individual's overall level of fitness, you should administer which of the following test?

(A) mile run
(B) 600 yard run
(C) use a battery of tests
(D) pull-ups

21. The ability of the respiratory and the circulatory systems to function efficiently defines which component of fitness?

(A) muscular endurance
(B) body composition
(C) neuromuscular coordination
(D) cardiovascular endurance

22. Surveys conducted during the past decade suggest that cardiorespiratory endurance and upper body strength of American youth have

(A) increased and body fat also increased.
(B) decreased and body fat has decreased.
(C) decreased and body fat has increased.
(D) made no sufficient increases or decreases in the 10 years prior.

23. Before improvement in an individual’s fitness takes place, what three variables must be manipulated?

(A) hypertension, cholesterol, smoking.
(B) flexibility, body composition, neuromuscular coordination
(C) frequency, intensity, duration.
(D) time, day, year.

24. For beginners, the best prescription to improved cardiovascular fitness is working out:

(A) everyday for at least 1 hour except weekends.
(B) every Tuesday and Thursday for 1 hour.
(C) at least three times a week for at least 1 hour.
(D) at least three times a week for at 20 minutes.

25. To increase one’s muscle mass through progressive resistance exercise they should:

(A) lift heavy weights with low repetitions.
(B) lift light weights with high repetitions.
(C) lift one’s body weight with high repetitions.
(D) lift one’s body weight with low repetitions.

26. The overload principle can apply:

(A) to only the lower body muscles.
(B) to all the muscles of the body.
(C) to only the muscles of the upper body.
(D) to the cardiorespiratory system only.

27. The single most critical element in learning a motor skill is

(A) the personality of the teacher
(B) the equipment used
(C) the cognitive involvement of the learner
(D) practice time

28. Which of the following learning experiences has the most potential to improve the throwing and catching performances of beginners?

(A) a circle game of hot potato
(B) throwing a ball to a wall and catching in a squad formation
(C) a game of softball
(D) throwing and catching with a partner

29. Friedrich Ludwig Jahn developed the Turnverein movement to

(A) develop strong citizens capable of overthrowing foreign rule
(B) build outstanding sport teams to gain prestige in the eyes of the world
(C) enhance the health of the citizens of the nation
(D) provide recreational opportunities for the nation’s citizens

30. Which statement best reflects the impact of World War II on physical education?

(A) physical education programs become more formalized in nature, emphasizing physical conditioning
(B) the selective service exams revealed that unlike World War I the men were in excellent shape
(C) physical education programs increased in number
(D) A and C

31. In dance, there are six analyses of movements which detail different areas of movement from body alignment to foot arid body positions, including dynamics and qualities. All of these topics combine under the heading of analyses to outline:

(A) dance rules
(B) the components of balance
(C) basics of dance technique
(D) movement terminology

32. When analyzing and critiquing dance, one should consider which of the following groups of ideas:

(A) identification of theme, spatial patterns, lighting, sound, costuming, the different sections of the dance, the emotion the dance evoked
(B) the physiques of those dancing, how comfortable you are in the theatre in which you viewed the performance
(C) whether or not you liked it, did it hold your attention, was the overall performance interesting at all
(D) all of the above

33. In basic folk and square dance, the main differences between the promenade and allemande steps are:

(A) one movement is a walk and the other uses jumps and slides
(B) one movement is an individual dance and the other is done with a partner
(C) one movement is a walk side by side around the hall and the other is a walk with both joining the same hand and walking around one another
(D) the terminology, the movements are the same, but what the movement is called varies from region to region

34. Multicultural dance education in school curriculums provide for:

(A) a more enjoyable teaching environment
(B) broadening student understanding of different cultures and values
(C) an improvement of the educational process and function by providing students with an comparison-based method for self-awareness
(D) b and c only

35. Which statement is characteristic of a physical education and sport program guided by the philosophy of naturalism?

(A) competition brings out the best in individuals
(B) drills are important in the learning process.
(C) program standardization ensures all individuals learn the same activities
(D) learning is accomplished through self-activity

36. The development of body awareness and efficient movement is the focus of the:

(A) neuromuscular development objectives
(B) physical development objectives
(C) cognitive development objectives
(D) affective-social-emotional development objectives

37. Physical education and sport opportunities for individuals with disabilities were increased by all of the following except

(A) the Educational Amendment Act of 1974 or PL 93-3 80
(B) the Amateur Sports Act of 1978 or PL 95-606
(C) the Educational Rehabilitation Act of 1978 or PL 95-687
(D) the Education for All Handicapped Children Act of 1975 or PL 94-142

38. All of the following are characteristic of the correct skill mechanics of a headstand,
EXCEPT

(A) keeping the body straight
(B) forming an equilateral triangle with the head and hands
(C) balancing on the fore-part of the head
(D) keeping the center of gravity inside the base of support

39. When performing a correct cartwheel, the performer should do all of the following,
EXCEPT

(A) keeping the arms slightly bent and the legs straight
(B) the first landing leg should be facing toward the starting position
(C) kick strongly with the lead leg
(D) perform the cartwheel in a straight line.

40. All of the following are common faults that inhibit a beginners correct execution of a basic backward roll, EXCEPT

(A) not having enough momentum to carry the hips over the head and hands
(B) placing the hands well above the shoulders when rolling upside down
(C) keeping the chin tucked into the chest
(D) failing to follow a straight line

41. The pullover mount on the low bar of the uneven and horizontal bars presents several problems to beginners. Which of the following biomechanics are necessary for the beginner to successfully complete the skill?

I. a strong kick over the bar
II. extending the arms when kicking
III. throwing the head back when kicking the first leg
IV. pulling the hips close to the bar by bending the arms

(A) l and II
(B) I, III and IV
(C) I, II, and III
(D I and IV

42. Which of the following is not an invasion game?

(A) volleyball
(B) basketball
(C) soccer
(D) lacrosse

43. Which of the following is not an invasion game strategy?

(A) how to maintain possession of the ball
(B) how to obtain possession of the ball
(C) how to control the ball
(D) where to place the object in relation to the goal to score

44. Which of the following are strategies for net games?

(A) get your racket head back before you swing
(B) place the ball where your opponent is not
(C) get your body set before you attempt to strike the ball
(D) all of the above

45. All of the following are characteristics of correctly batting a ball EXCEPT

(A) swing forward, rotating hips followed by arms and hands
(B) shift weight forward keeping hips and shoulders level
(C) stop the bat at the point of contact with the ball roll wrists after contact
(D)

46. All of the following are characteristics of the running long jump EXCEPT

(A) swing the arms and legs upward and forward
(B) jump from both feet
(C) use a sitting position when in the air
(D) reach forward upon landing

47. All of the following are characteristics of a tennis serve EXCEPT

(A) Lift the racket up behind the back
(B) Lead with the elbow as racket is swung upward and forward
(C) shift weight upward and forward with racket
(D) contact with a half extension of racket arm

48. When setting a pass with an overhead volley, the player should attempt to do all of the following EXCEPT

(A) contact the ball with the heel of the hand
(B) extend the body upward on contact
(C) form a window with the hands above the face
(B) flex the knees and elbows prior to the hit

49. Which of the following cues most reflects the openness of the basketball dribble?

(A) use the pads of your fingers
(B) keep your dribble low when guarded
(C) place the ball farther in front when going faster
(D) push the ball down

50. On a free throw attempt all players except the shooter may enter the lane when:

A. The ball touches the rim
B. The ball is clearly in its downward flight
C. The ball leaves the shooter's hand
D. The shooter is in his/her natural shooting motion

51. Which of the following rules apply in a badminton serve:

A. The serve may be performed forehand or backhand
B. The server may stand in any position in the service area
C. The serve may vary in height and velocity as long as it is struck from below the waist
D. All of the above

52. All of the following are characteristics of a dig pass EXCEPT

(A) Contact the ball with an upward motion
(B) Clench the fingers and turn the palms upward
(C) Turn the body to the side in midair
(D) Keep the forearms, wrists and elbows straight

53. An appropriate focus for refinement at advanced stages of the badminton smash would be

(A) transferring weight to the forward foot
(B) smashing to the right as an opponent moves to the left
(C) ensuring that the angle on the follow-through is down
(D) snapping the wrist on the follow-through

54. if the task is “work to get your landing soft by bending at the hips, knees, and ankles,” which of the following statements would not be congruent feedback?

(A) good soft landing, Tommy
(B) get more extension in the air
(C) bend at your knees more. Go all the way down
(D) all of the above

55. Which of the following is most appropriate for a tennis serve taught to beginners

(A) part, whole
(B) whole
(C) whole, part
(D) all of the above under certain conditions

56. Which statement best describes footwork for a volleyball spike?

(A) During the last step both heels contact the floor and the weight is transferred to the toes and the take-off is from both feet.
(B) If the hitter is right handed take-off is from the leg foot.
(C) The hitter takes off on the foot that is on the same side as the striking arm.
(D) Both feet are planted and take-off requires a drop step.

57. Which of the following is not true of a designated spot throw-in

(A) It follows an awarded goal.
(B) The clock starts when the ball touches a player in bounds.
(C) The player attempting the throw-in may not move both feet
(D) The ball must be put into play within a 5 second count.

58. In a singles tennis game, the following is not true:

(A) One player remains the server for all points of a game.
(B) The server must take up a position behind the base line without touching that line.
(C) The server must toss the ball in the air and strike it in any fashion (including underhand) before the ball hits the ground.
(D) The server may swing with the intent of hitting the ball and miss without incurring a fault.

59. Which specialized area of study is concerned with designing programs for individuals with special needs?

(A) sport pedagogy
(B) motor learning
(C) motor development
(D) adapted physical education

60. During the Colonial period in the United States physical education’s growth was encouraged by

(A) sports brought from native lands.
(B) religious beliefs
(C) the emphasis given to it in the school curriculum
(D) the need to be strong to survive the agrarian existence

61. Which of the following is true about the infield fly rule?

(A) The ball is live on an infield fly.
(B) Runners may advance at their own risk on an infield fly.
(C) 1st and 2nd base must be occupied and less than 2 outs.
(D) All of the above.

62. A run shall be scored if the 3M out is the result of:

(A) The batter being put out before reaching 1st base.
(B) Runner being thrown out at 3rd base after a runner has scored
(C) A force play at any base
(D) A dropped fly ball in the outfield in which the batter is thrown out before reaching 1st base.

63. The umpire calls an illegal pitch, the ball is inside and the batter attempts to get out of the way of the pitch, the ball hits the bat and rolls fair. The ruling is:

(A) No pitch
(B) Strike of the batter and dead ball
(C) Ball in play
(D) Award a ball to the batter because the swing was unintentional

64. Of the following, the component of physical fitness most conducive to longevity is

(A) muscular strength
(B) muscular endurance
(C) cardiovascular endurance
(D) body composition

65. All of the following are health-related components of physical fitness, EXCEPT

(A) cardiovascular endurance
(B) muscular strength and endurance
(C) muscular power
(D) body composition

66. All of the following are skill-related components of physical fitness, EXCEPT

(A) agility
(B) balance
(C) coordination
(D) flexibility

67. The power needed to jump very high integrates which two of the following factors.

I. muscular endurance
II. muscular strength
III. speed of muscle contraction
IV. degree of muscular flexibility

(A) l and Ill
(B) l and IV
(C) II and III
(D) II and IV

68. Increasing the flexibility in the hamstring and lower back muscles does not improve flexibility in the shoulder joint. What principle of physical fitness is being demonstrated?

(A) overload principle
(B) principle of progression
(C) principle of intensity
(D) principle of specificity

69. A strength and endurance training program that slightly increases the weight lifted every day for six months, involves what two principles of modern muscle strength and endurance conditioning?

(A) progression and overload
(B) variable resistance and overload
(C) frequency and progression
(D) intensity and retention

70. Which of the following modes of training can be utilized in developing muscular strength?

I. isotonic training
II. interval training
III. isokinetic training
IV. isometric training

(A) I only
(B) II and III only
(C) I, II, and III
(D) I, III, and IV

71. All of the following are following modes of training can be used to increase muscular flexibility, EXCEPT

(A) aerobic
(B) ballistic
(C) slow sustained
(D) proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation

72. Which of the following are utilized when determining cardiorespiratory training zone?

I. resting pulse rate
II. maximal heart rate minus age
III. 50% 85% times the heart rate reserve
IV. exercise heart rate

(A) I, II, and III
(B) I, II, and IV
(C) II, Ill, and IV
(D) I, III, and IV

73. What effect does cardiorespiratory training for strenuous physical activity have on the heart?

(A) smaller stroke volume
(B) higher resting heart rate
(C) slower drop in blood pressure following exercise
(D) slower increase in heart rate during moderate exercise

74. If developing both muscular strength and endurance is the primary objective, which of the following represents the correct number of repetitions with submaximal weight for optimal results?

(A) 1 - 4 repetitions
(B) 4 - 8 repetitions
(C) 8 - 12 repetitions
(D) 12 - 16 repetitions

75. Fatigue and exhaustion are the result of:

(A) the bodies’ inability to meet exercise demands
(B) nonspecific exercise training
(C) the bodies inadequate utilization of substrates
(D) inadequate mitochrondrial enzyme concentrations

76. The net summation of the adaptations induced by regular physical training is known as:

(A) maximal exercise
(B) training adaptations
(C) specific exercise
(D) specificity of training

77. When an individual is involved in extreme anaerobic activity the ability of that individual to continue that work is dependent upon the following ratio;

(A) 1:1 intensity to duration
(B) 1:2 intensity to frequency
(C) 2:1 intensity to duration
(D) 1:1 duration to frequency

78. During a mile run of 7minutes a non-competitive individual obtains energy from

(A) cellular ATP
(B) the lactate system
(C) the aerobic pathways
(D) all the above

79. During exercise heat is produced by:

(A) the catabolism of foodstuffs to be used as energy
(B) the priming of the muscle for exercise potential
(C) the use of ATP to slide various muscle filaments involved in muscle contraction and relaxation
(D) an increase in the blood flow to supply fluel and remove waste products

80. Cardiovascular training should:

I. be of a rhythmical and smooth manner
II. involve large muscle groups
III. be such that it can be performed for long periods of time
IV. be performed at a target heart rate related to age and heart rate

(A) I, II, III
(B) I and III
(C) II, and IV
(D) I, II, III, and IV

81. Interval training is good to use:

(A) to increase VO2max
(B) in the beginning with people who are unfit
(C) for cardiac rehabilitation
(D) for athletes processing a high level of cardiovascular fitness

82. Severe dieting is generally inadvisable for prudent weight loss because:

(A) it increases water retention thus creating edema
(B) significant lean tissue is lost
(C) obese people do not eat in great excess so true gluttony is often not the problem
(D) all the above

83. Which of the following statements explain the crux of the teacher/coach role conflict?

I. educators occupying both roles perceive them as totally different, and therefore choose the one they prefer as the dominant role.
II. the impossibility of meeting the demands of both roles simultaneously is often compounded by powerful social and personal incentives to make the coaching role pre-eminent
III. the pressure to produce a winning team cause coaches to neglect physical education classes
IV. the added financial gain and public credibility causes coaches to place more importance on coaching

(A) I and II only
(B) II, III, and IV only
(C) l and IV only
(D) I, II, III, and IV

84. You have been assigned to teach health and physical education in a school district, which is in a community that you are not familiar with. Upon doing some research you discover that there is a large number of native-American children enrolled in the district. In order to best teach to the students and be accepted into the community would you:

(A) teach as you would to any group and keep to the basic sport skills/ healthy living curriculum
(B) attempt to learn about their customs and culture and include them in your teaching activities
(C) be aware of the differences by being sensitive but keep to the basic curriculum
(D) be inclusive to the community, learn how these children best learn and teach the basic skills using diverse cultural activities

85. A child observes his/her older brother behaving in a given manner while participating on
a sport team in a game situation in which he is not caught intentionally fouling a opposing
athlete. The child then replicates the same behavior when participating in a game. This would be defined under the personality theory of:

I. trait theory
II. social learning theory
III. interactional theory
IV. psychodynamic theory
V. behavioral theory

(A) II
(B) II and V
(C) III, and V
(D) II and III

86. The concept of being aggressive in sport situations is often fostered by the coach. There is however a difference between being aggressive and being violent. To understand and define the concept of aggression and aggressive behavior in a sport context one would have to know the following theories except for:

(A) catharsis hypothesis
(B) instinct theory
(C) moral reasoning theory
(D) social-learning theory

87. Between the ages of three and six or seven the preferred form of play by the child would be:

(A) competitive, game-related
(B) cooperative, skill-development
(C) cooperative, game-related
(D) cooperative, play-related

88. One of the goals of physical education is socialization of students. Among the factors which make up this broad conceptual area are all of the following except:

(A) cooperation
(B) competition
(C) moral reasoning
(D) teamwork

89. Which of the following is NOT one of the dangers of taking amphetamines to enhance exercise performance:

(A) heart damage
(B) psychological dependence
(C) circulatory collapse
(D) increased sensation of muscle fatigue

90. Torque is best defined as:

(A) the rotary effect of a force
(B) centric forces producing translation
(C) effective potential force + pressure
(D) the amount of force acting over a given area

91. When examining a given movement in terms of stability, it is known that it is best accomplished when the line of gravity is:

(A) perpendicular to the center of gravity
(B) lateral to the base of support
(C) through the base of support
(D) segmented with a narrow base of support

92. Most anatomical levers found in the human body sacrifice power and force for speed, these levers are classified as:

(A) first class levers
(B) second class levers
(C) third class levers
(D) fourth class levers

93. The only type of movement the human machine can produce which results in locomotion is:

(A) accelerative
(B) linear
(C) combinational
(D) angular

94. In terms of biomechanical principles running could most easily be described as:

(A) application of force to the ground
(B) acceleration of mass over distance
(C) repetition of pressure x force
(D) a series of contractions against a mass

95. Which of the following helps prevent soreness and stiffness after exercise?

(A) mild stretching before and after exercise
(B) a brief but moderate paced walk
(C) an immediate 15 minute period of laying down
(D) jogging in place for 5 minutes

90. Torque is best defined as:

(A) the rotary effect of a force
(B) centric forces producing translation
(C) effective potential force + pressure
(D) the amount of force acting over a given area

91. When examining a given movement in terms of stability, it is known that it is best accomplished when the line of gravity is:

(A) perpendicular to the center of gravity
(B) lateral to the base of support
(C) through the base of support
(D) segmented with a narrow base of support

92. Most anatomical levers found in the human body sacrifice power and force for speed, these levers are classified as:

(A) first class levers
(B) second class levers
(C) third class levers
(D) fourth class levers

93. The only type of movement the human machine can produce which results in locomotion is:

(A) accelerative
(B) linear
(C) combinational
(D) angular

94. In terms of biomechanical principles running could most easily be described as:

(A) application of force to the ground
(B) acceleration of mass over distance
(C) repetition of pressure x force
(D) a series of contractions against a mass

95. Which of the following helps prevent soreness and stiffness after exercise?

(A) mild stretching before and after exercise
(B) a brief but moderate paced walk
(C) an immediate 15 minute period of laying down
(D) jogging in place for 5 minutes

96. Exercise intensity can be expressed as a percentage of one’s

(A) resting heart rate
(B) RQ
(C) Vo2 max
(D) power (x) duration

97. All of the following are direct physiological consequences of warm-down (cool-down) activities following vigorous physical activity EXCEPT

(A) preventing blood from pooling in the legs
(B) increasing the rate of lactic acid removal from the blood and skeletal muscle
(C) promoting the reduction of cholesterol in the blood
(D) reducing the risk of cardiac irregularities

98. All of the following are safety principles or measures applied in gymnastics, EXCEPT

(A) spot gymnastic skill only when learning a new skill
(B) skill progressions are essential to gymnastic development
((‘) spotting is an art designed to protect participants when performing gymnastic skills
(D) physical and mental readiness is the most basic principle applied in teaching gymnastic skills

99. Lower back pain syndrome is preventable and is caused by all of the following EXCEPT

(A) physical inactivity
(B) poor postural habits
(C) excessive body weight
(D) stomach and back exercises

100. All of the following are physical fitness assessments in the “Physical Best “ tests, EXCEPT

(A) aerobic endurance
(B) muscular power
(C) muscular flexibility
(D) muscular strength and endurance

101. Which of the following is the most widely used assessment of health-related physical fitness for youth and young adults?

(A) the Kraus-Weber test
(B) the Fitnessgram
(C) the 3 Minute Harvard Step test
(D) the National Youth Physical Fitness Program

102. All of the following are popular physical fitness test batteries EXCEPT

(A) the Fitnessgram
(B) the President’s Challenge
(C) the National Youth Physical Fitness Program
(D) the National Physical Fitness Test

103. A physical education curriculum stressing student mastery of specific measurable skills is

(A) concept-based
(B) modular-based
(C) competency-based
(D) activity-based

104. Measuring the heart rate is most easily done by taking which of the following pulses?

(A) carotid
(B) radial
(C) temporal
(D) femoral

105. The primary objective of a first aid program is to train individuals to

(A) become aware of safety hazards in the environment
(B) give immediate care to those who are injured or suddenly taken ill
(C) make use of the techniques of accident prevention
(D) administer emergency medical care to victims involved in accidents

106. Immediately treating muscle and joint injuries such as strains and sprains, which of the following are utilized?

I. Cold applied to the injured area
II. Elevation of the injured area
III. Heat applied to the injured area
IV. Compression of the injured area with an elastic wrap

(A) I and II only
(B) I, II, and IV
(C) II, III, and IV
(D) I, III, and IV

107. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation is necessary when which of the following conditions are present?

I. no breathing
II. blocked airway
III. no pulse
IV. severe bleeding

(A) l only
(B) l and II
(C) I and III
(D) II, III, and IV

108. When responding to accidents or illnesses, all of the following are emergency action principles, EXCEPT

(A) call the injured person’s family
(B) check the scene and the victim
(C) call the emergency telephone number
(D) care for injured person until help arrives

109. In which of the following situations can negligence be charged if a student suffers harm?

I. Asking a student to assume an unreasonable risk, e.g., take part in activities designed primarily to build "courage"
II. Failing to apply proper first aid when necessary or exceeding the limits of first aid
III. Knowingly allowing students to participate in activities that are unusually dangerous
IV. Allowing or devising a situation wherein a student is seriously mismatched in a situation requiring physical contact

(A) I, and II only
(B) II and III only
(C) I, III, and IV only
(D) I, II, III, and IV

110. An administrator of a physical education program hired a person to supervise children’s gymnastics class without first checking into whether the person had been convicted of any crime related to child molestation. This new employee molests one of the children in the program. The parents of the child decides to sue the administrator. The administrator would be subject to:

(A) criminal law
(B) civil law
(C) all of the above
(D) none of the above

111. The following illustration is an example of a competitive kick in swimming. What is the name of the kick?

(A) Breast stroke kick
(B) Sidestroke kick
(C) Flutter kick
(D) Dolphin kick

112. The center of buoyancy is located:

(A) in the abdomen
(B) in the chest
(C) in the legs
(D) in the hips

113. Not allowing yourself to come to a complete stop between cycles of the breast stroke is a demonstration of:

(A) Law of Inertia
(B) Law of action and reaction
(C) Law of acceleration
(D) Law of conservation of energy

114. Plyometrics is based upon:

(A) pre-stretched muscle performance training
(B) static stretch warmup
(C) Golgi tendon organ inhibition
(D) overload weight training

115. Movement away from the medial line is called:

(A) flexion
(B) extension
(C) adduction
(D) abduction

116. Striations in skeletal muscle are caused by:

(A) unequal pigmentation
(B) actin and myosin filaments
(C) blood vessels
(D) cartilage

117. The exchange of ions causing a change in the resting condition of the muscle membrane is called:

(A) Depolarization
(B) Repolarization
(C) Polarization
(D) transmitter substance

118. Lengthening of muscle under tension is:

(A) isotonic contraction
(B) isometric contraction
(C) static contraction
(D) eccentric contraction

119. The by product of an activity that requires oxygen and the body cannot provide it in sufficient quantities is

(A) Hemoglobin
(B) lactic acid
(C) carbonic anhydrase
(D) amino acid

120. Angular motion is represented by which of the following?

I. The knees of a cyclist
II. The trunk of a discus thrower
III. The arms of a pitcher

(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and II only
(D) I, II and III

Answers